Ah, we have come across a differing of opinions on the definition of the word "homophobia." It's my impression that there is no universal definition or qualification of the term.
Merriam-Webster defines homophobia as an "irrational fear of, aversion to, or discrimination against homosexuality or homosexuals." I suspect we can both agree that hate crimes and hate speech (gay-bashing) are firmly within the realm of "irrational fear of," and "aversion to." I can see where there could be differing opinions on whether "disallowing homosexuals" falls under "aversion to, or discrimination against," though I personally think so.
I take a broad view of the word "homophobic," using it to mean any person or action intentionally treating homosexuals or homosexual behavior differently from heterosexuals or heterosexual behavior, though I definitely agree that hate crimes and speech are of a much more serious order than "mere" exclusionary practices. I use the term "homophobia" the same way as I use the term "racism" or "sexism." While it is definitely less severe to keep women out of golf clubs than it is to rape women, I would classify both as sexism. Similarly, it is less severe to keep homosexuals out of the BSA than to beat them, but I still classify both as homophobia. My classification is based upon tangible actions, rather than morals. If I were to base my definitions upon morals, it would not be considered racist if a group decided to disallow black people based upon the group's belief that there was something morally abhorrent about black people (e.g., neo-Nazis).
Unintentionally treating homosexuals differently I would classify as "heteronormativity" - assuming that heterosexual is "normal" and forgetting that others exist. Would you classify disallowing homosexuals as being a heteronormative action, rather than a homophobic action?
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timeasmymeasure
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Date: 2006-01-31 05:23 pm (UTC)Merriam-Webster defines homophobia as an "irrational fear of, aversion to, or discrimination against homosexuality or homosexuals." I suspect we can both agree that hate crimes and hate speech (gay-bashing) are firmly within the realm of "irrational fear of," and "aversion to." I can see where there could be differing opinions on whether "disallowing homosexuals" falls under "aversion to, or discrimination against," though I personally think so.
I take a broad view of the word "homophobic," using it to mean any person or action intentionally treating homosexuals or homosexual behavior differently from heterosexuals or heterosexual behavior, though I definitely agree that hate crimes and speech are of a much more serious order than "mere" exclusionary practices. I use the term "homophobia" the same way as I use the term "racism" or "sexism." While it is definitely less severe to keep women out of golf clubs than it is to rape women, I would classify both as sexism. Similarly, it is less severe to keep homosexuals out of the BSA than to beat them, but I still classify both as homophobia. My classification is based upon tangible actions, rather than morals. If I were to base my definitions upon morals, it would not be considered racist if a group decided to disallow black people based upon the group's belief that there was something morally abhorrent about black people (e.g., neo-Nazis).
Unintentionally treating homosexuals differently I would classify as "heteronormativity" - assuming that heterosexual is "normal" and forgetting that others exist. Would you classify disallowing homosexuals as being a heteronormative action, rather than a homophobic action?
(cross-posted w/ modifications to my front page)